Hi @lagapidis , can i just interject and ask a question of my own?
Why do 2 switches need to have the same native VLAN in order for them to communicate? If the frame is untagged anyway without any vlan information then why does the other switch care what its native VLAN is? If i have one switch with a native VLAN of 1 and the other switch native VLAN 99, when one goes to send a CDP or STP fram untagged and it reaches the other switch untagged, then why does it get rejected? Is there still information on what the native VLAN of the sender is and thus as a result have to match?
Thanks again